Consider the following statements regarding Planck's constant physical significance:
1. The photoelectric effect experiments conducted by Albert Einstein in 1905 utilized Planck's constant to explain the threshold frequency required for electron emission.
2. Heisenberg's uncertainty principle establishes that the product of the uncertainties in position and momentum is greater than or equal to h divided by 4π.
3. The de Broglie relation states that the wavelength of a particle is inversely proportional to its momentum, with the constant of proportionality being Planck's constant.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 1 is correct. Statement 2 is correct. Statement 3 is correct.
Statement 1 is correct as Einstein used Planck's constant (h) to define photon energy (E=hf), proving that electron emission depends on frequency rather than intensity. Statement 2 is correct because Heisenberg's uncertainty principle mathematically relates the limits of measurement precision as ΔxΔp ≥ h/4π. Statement 3 is correct because the de Broglie relation λ = h/p establishes that a particle's wave-like wavelength is inversely proportional to its momentum, mediated by Planck's constant.
Consider the following statements concerning the Pradhan Mantri Vaya Vandana Yojana (PMVVY):
1. The scheme is a pension program designed to provide social security to senior citizens aged sixty years and above.
2. It offers a guaranteed minimum rate of return on the invested principal amount for a specified policy tenure.
3. The scheme is operated and managed exclusively by the Reserve Bank of India acting as the central administrator.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
- 1 and 2
- 1 and 3
- 2 and 3
- 1, 2, 3
Explanation: Statement 3 is incorrect. The PMVVY is not managed by the Reserve Bank of India. The central government authorized the Life Insurance Corporation of India (LIC) to operate and manage this specific pension scheme for senior citizens.
With reference to the 'Commonweal' and 'New India', consider the following statements:
1. Both were newspapers edited by Annie Besant.
2. They focused on political education and 'self-rule' within the British Empire.
3. They were printed in multiple vernacular languages to reach the peasantry.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- 1 and 2 only
- 1 and 3 only
- 2 only
- 1, 2 and 3
Explanation: Both were English-language publications. While they reached the intelligentsia, the vernacular outreach was primarily handled through Tilak's 'Kesari' (Marathi).
Consider the following statements regarding Coulomb Blockade Phenomenon:
1. In 1987, Fulton and Dolan demonstrated the first single-electron transistor operating at cryogenic temperatures based on the principle of Coulomb blockade.
2. The Coulomb blockade phenomenon occurs when the charging energy of a quantum dot exceeds the thermal energy of the system, typically expressed as e²/2C > kBT.
3. The Coulomb blockade is observed in metallic nanoparticles when the tunneling resistance exceeds the von Klitzing constant of 25.8 kilo-ohms, a threshold established during the 1980 Quantum Hall Effect research.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 1 is correct. Statement 2 is correct. Statement 3 is incorrect.
Statement 1 is correct as T.A. Fulton and G.J. Dolan successfully demonstrated the first single-electron transistor in 1987 using a metallic island at cryogenic temperatures. Statement 2 is correct because the Coulomb blockade requires the electrostatic charging energy (e²/2C) to be significantly larger than the thermal energy (kBT) to prevent electrons from hopping via thermal fluctuations. Statement 3 is incorrect because the condition for observing Coulomb blockade in tunneling junctions requires the resistance to exceed the quantum of resistance (h/e² ≈ 25.8 kΩ), which is indeed the von Klitzing constant; however, the statement is technically flawed as this threshold is a general requirement for localization in tunneling junctions, not a threshold established specifically for the discovery of the Coulomb blockade itself.
With reference to Protozoans, consider the following pairs:
1. Amoeboid: Entamoeba
2. Flagellated: Trypanosoma
3. Ciliated: Paramecium
Which of the above are correctly matched?
- All three
- 1 and 3
- 1 and 2
- 2 and 3
Explanation: Entamoeba uses pseudopodia (amoeboid), Trypanosoma has flagella (causes sleeping sickness), and Paramecium uses thousands of cilia.
Consider the following statements regarding Musti Yuddha: ancient Indian combat techniques:
1. Musti Yuddha is categorized as a form of unarmed Indian martial art, and it was prominently featured in the courtly displays of the 16th-century Mughal administration under Akbar.
2. The techniques of Musti Yuddha emphasize strikes with the knuckles and elbows, and historical accounts link its popularity to the patronage of the Vijayanagara Empire in the 15th century.
3. The training regimen for Musti Yuddha includes rigorous physical conditioning, and it gained significant cultural prominence during the 17th-century Maratha military expansion.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 1 is incorrect. Statement 2 is incorrect. Statement 3 is incorrect.
Musti Yuddha is an ancient form of unarmed combat dating back to the Vedic period, not specifically originating or defined by the 16th-century Mughal administration or the 17th-century Maratha expansion. While it involves strikes with fists (musti), elbows, knees, and feet, there is no historical evidence linking its primary popularity to the patronage of the Vijayanagara Empire in the 15th century. All three statements are incorrect as they inaccurately attribute the origins and historical prominence of this ancient martial art to specific later-medieval political entities.
Consider the following statements concerning the Current Account of the Balance of Payments:
1. A trade deficit occurs when the value of merchandise imports exceeds merchandise exports.
2. Remittances from overseas workers represent the largest source of secondary income receipts.
3. India historically maintains a sustained surplus in the primary income account component.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
- 1, 2, 3
- 1 and 2
- 2 and 3
- 1 and 3
Explanation: Statement 3 is incorrect. India historically runs a deficit in the primary income account because the outflow of profits, dividends, and interest payments to foreign investors consistently exceeds the income earned by Indians abroad.
Regarding Soil Conservation measures, consider the following statements:
1. Contour bunding involves constructing banks along contours to check the downward flow of water and soil.
2. Strip cropping involves planting alternate strips of different crops to reduce both wind and water erosion.
3. Shelterbelts are rows of trees planted to check wind movement and protect soils from erosion in desert and coastal areas.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
- 1 and 2
- 2 and 3
- 1 and 3
- All three
Explanation: All three statements are correct. Contour bunding, strip cropping, and shelterbelts are all effective agronomic and mechanical measures utilized for soil conservation.
Consider the following statements regarding Venturi effect and its practical applications:
1. The phenomenon of cavitation can occur in a Venturi device if the pressure at the throat drops below the vapor pressure of the flowing liquid.
2. The design of a typical Venturi tube includes a converging section with an angle of 15 to 20 degrees to minimize energy loss due to flow separation.
3. In industrial water treatment, Venturi injectors are employed to introduce chemicals like chlorine or ozone into water lines without the use of mechanical pumps.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 1 is correct. Statement 2 is correct. Statement 3 is correct.
Statement 1 is correct because, according to Bernoulli's principle, the velocity increase at the throat causes a pressure drop, which can trigger cavitation if it falls below the liquid's vapor pressure. Statement 2 is correct as a 15-20 degree convergence angle is standard in Venturi meter design to ensure smooth flow transition and prevent boundary layer separation that causes energy loss. Statement 3 is correct because Venturi injectors utilize the pressure differential created by the constriction to create a vacuum (suction) that draws chemicals into the main flow line, eliminating the need for auxiliary mechanical pumps.
Consider the following statements regarding Nuclear Disaster Emergency Procedures:
1. The International Atomic Energy Agency (IAEA) Convention on Assistance in the Case of a Nuclear Accident or Radiological Emergency was adopted on 26 September 1986.
2. India's Nuclear Emergency Response Plan involves multiple stakeholders, including the Department of Atomic Energy and the National Disaster Management Authority.
3. The response to a nuclear disaster in India is coordinated by the Crisis Management Group (CMG), which was established under the chairmanship of the Secretary, Department of Atomic Energy in 2002.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 1 is correct. Statement 2 is correct. Statement 3 is correct.
Statement 1 is correct because the IAEA Convention on Assistance in the Case of a Nuclear Accident or Radiological Emergency was indeed adopted on 26 September 1986, in response to the Chernobyl nuclear accident. Statement 2 is correct as India's Nuclear Emergency Response Plan is a multi-agency effort involving the Department of Atomic Energy, National Disaster Management Authority, and other stakeholders to respond to nuclear emergencies. Statement 3 is correct because the Crisis Management Group (CMG) was established under the chairmanship of the Secretary, Department of Atomic Energy in 2002 to coordinate the response to a nuclear disaster in India. Since all statements are verified to be true based on the facts, the correct answer is 'All three'.
Consider the following statements regarding Carbon cycle feedback in atmospheric composition:
1. The ocean acts as a significant carbon sink, absorbing approximately 25 percent of annual anthropogenic carbon dioxide emissions, a process governed by the solubility pump and the biological pump.
2. Photosynthetic activity in the Amazon Basin increases during the dry season, leading to a net seasonal reduction in atmospheric carbon dioxide levels that offsets industrial emissions from South American urban centers.
3. According to the IPCC Sixth Assessment Report, the terrestrial biosphere currently sequesters about 30 percent of human-caused carbon dioxide emissions through photosynthesis and soil organic matter storage.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 1 is correct. Statement 3 is correct. Statement 2 is incorrect.
Statement 1 is correct as the ocean absorbs about 25% of anthropogenic CO2 via the solubility pump (physical dissolution) and the biological pump (carbon fixation by phytoplankton). Statement 3 is correct, as the IPCC AR6 confirms the terrestrial biosphere acts as a major carbon sink, sequestering approximately 30% of human-induced emissions through vegetation and soil storage. Statement 2 is incorrect because, during the dry season in the Amazon, photosynthetic activity actually decreases due to water stress, and the region often shifts from a carbon sink to a net carbon source due to increased respiration and biomass burning.
Consider the following statements regarding the 'Umbrella' nature of the EPA 1986:
1. It was enacted to coordinate the activities of various regulatory agencies under existing laws.
2. It dissolved the Central and State Pollution Control Boards and centralized their powers.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- 2 only
- 1 only
- Both 1 and 2
- Neither 1 nor 2
Explanation: The EPA was designed to act as an 'umbrella' legislation to coordinate the activities of various central and state authorities established under previous laws like the Water Act (1974) and Air Act (1981), not to dissolve them.
Consider the following statements regarding Lord Auckland and the First Anglo-Afghan War:
1. The First Anglo-Afghan War concluded with the Treaty of Gandamak in 1842, which granted the British permanent residency rights in the city of Herat to monitor Persian border movements.
2. Lord Auckland was succeeded by Lord Ellenborough in 1842, who immediately ordered the annexation of the Punjab region to secure the supply lines for the Army of the Indus.
3. Lord Auckland's forward policy was largely driven by the fear of Russian influence in Central Asia, often referred to as the Great Game.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 3 is correct. Statement 1 is incorrect. Statement 2 is incorrect.
Statement 3 is correct because Lord Auckland's 'Forward Policy' was motivated by the 'Great Game,' a geopolitical rivalry to prevent Russian expansion toward India. Statement 1 is incorrect because the First Anglo-Afghan War ended with the evacuation of Kabul in 1842, while the Treaty of Gandamak was actually signed in 1879 during the Second Anglo-Afghan War. Statement 2 is incorrect because Lord Ellenborough succeeded Auckland in 1842 to oversee the withdrawal from Afghanistan, and the annexation of Punjab did not occur until 1849 under Lord Dalhousie.
Rani Gaidinliu led a significant tribal revolt in?
- Tripura and Mizoram
- Assam and Meghalaya
- Manipur and Nagaland
- Arunachal Pradesh
Explanation: Rani Gaidinliu integrated the Zeliangrong tribal movement with the broader Civil Disobedience Movement.
Consider the following statements regarding Maritime security and regional connectivity corridors:
1. The 2022 Negev Summit brought together the foreign ministers of Israel, the UAE, Bahrain, Morocco, Egypt, and the United States to discuss regional security architecture.
2. The maritime security architecture under the 2022 India-UAE Memorandum of Understanding on Defense Cooperation allows for the reciprocal basing of naval vessels at the Port of Jebel Ali and the Port of Kandla.
3. The Port of Haifa, which was acquired by the Adani Group in January 2023, is a key node intended to link the IMEC maritime route with the Mediterranean rail network.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 1 is correct. Statement 3 is correct. Statement 2 is incorrect.
Statement 1 is correct as the 2022 Negev Summit marked a historic diplomatic gathering of the US and regional partners to strengthen security cooperation following the Abraham Accords. Statement 3 is correct because the Adani Group acquired the Port of Haifa in 2023, positioning it as a strategic Mediterranean gateway for the India-Middle East-Europe Economic Corridor (IMEC). Statement 2 is incorrect because while India and the UAE have robust defense ties, there is no bilateral MoU that permits the reciprocal basing of naval vessels at the Port of Kandla or Jebel Ali.
What is the average gestation period of an Asian Elephant, the longest of any land mammal?
- 22 months
- 18 months
- 12 months
- 24 months
Explanation: Asian elephants have a gestation period of about 22 months, which is a critical factor in their slow population growth rate.
Consider the following statements regarding Active matrix backplane technology using Thin Film Transistors (TFTs):
1. Capacitive storage elements within the TFT backplane are charged during the row-addressing phase, ensuring the organic diode maintains a constant luminance level through the use of a secondary cold-cathode emission layer.
2. The use of back-channel etched TFT structures provides high stability in AMOLED displays, with the 2010 industry standard shifting toward p-type semiconductor channels to increase overall pixel density.
3. The 2015 development of metal-oxide TFTs allowed for higher switching speeds, enabling AMOLED panels to achieve a native contrast ratio of 10,000:1 by eliminating the need for a separate backlight unit.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 1 is incorrect. Statement 2 is incorrect. Statement 3 is incorrect.
Statement 1 is incorrect because OLEDs are self-emissive and do not utilize cold-cathode emission layers, which are associated with older field-emission displays. Statement 2 is false as the industry standard for AMOLED backplanes shifted toward n-type metal-oxide semiconductors (like IGZO) rather than p-type to improve electron mobility. Statement 3 is incorrect because while metal-oxide TFTs improved switching speeds, the native contrast ratio of AMOLED is technically infinite (or near-infinite) due to the ability to turn individual pixels completely off, not a fixed 10,000:1 ratio.
The 'Doctrine of Severability' is related to which Article?
- Article 15
- Article 14
- Article 12
- Article 13
Explanation: If only a part of the law is unconstitutional, only that part is declared void, not the whole law.
Consider the following statements regarding Enforcement powers regarding recommendations:
1. The Commission consists of a Chairperson, a Vice-Chairperson, and three other members, all of whom are appointed by the President by warrant under his hand and seal.
2. Under Article 338A, clause 9, the Union and every State Government are expected to consult the Commission on all major policy matters affecting Scheduled Tribes.
3. The Commission operates under the Ministry of Tribal Affairs, and its procedural rules allow it to issue binding directives to State Governments regarding the implementation of the Forest Rights Act of 2006.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 1 is correct. Statement 2 is correct. Statement 3 is incorrect.
Statement 1 is correct as the National Commission for Scheduled Tribes (NCST) is constituted under Article 338A with a Chairperson, Vice-Chairperson, and three members appointed by the President. Statement 2 is correct because Article 338A(9) mandates that the Union and State Governments must consult the Commission on all major policy matters affecting STs. Statement 3 is incorrect because, while the NCST investigates and monitors matters related to the Forest Rights Act, it functions as a civil court with recommendatory powers and lacks the authority to issue binding directives to State Governments.
Regarding the Earth's 'Outer Core', consider the following statements:
1. It is composed primarily of iron and nickel with some lighter elements like sulfur and oxygen.
2. It is under so much pressure that it remains in a solid-state despite high temperatures.
3. Its convective motion is responsible for the Earth's magnetic field.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- 1 only
- 2 and 3 only
- 1 and 3 only
- 1, 2 and 3
Explanation: Statement 2 is incorrect; the outer core is liquid. The inner core is the part that remains solid due to intense pressure.
Which of the following is a core benefit of 'Microservices' architecture in the cloud?
- It ensures that the entire application is written in a single programming language to avoid any compatibility issues between different software modules.
- It makes the application easier to deploy as one file.
- It allows individual components to scale independently.
- It reduces the total number of APIs required.
Explanation: Microservices break an application into small, independent services, allowing teams to scale and update parts of the system without affecting the whole.
Who is considered the most prominent early martyr and driving force of the Ghadar movement?
- Taraknath Das
- Kartar Singh Sarabha
- Sohan Singh Bhakna
- Lala Hardayal
Explanation: Kartar Singh Sarabha was a key architect of the Ghadar mutiny plan. He was executed at the young age of 19 and was deeply admired by Bhagat Singh.
Consider the following statements regarding Role of Chief Commissioner and State Commissioners:
1. The office of the Chief Commissioner was established following the 1995 Act, and the 2016 legislation incorporates the same provision for the Chief Commissioner to serve a fixed term of six years.
2. The Chief Commissioner holds the authority to directly appoint the State Commissioners, as the 2016 Act provides for a unified hierarchical structure under the Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment.
3. State Commissioners are empowered to adjudicate criminal cases involving the violation of rights under the Act, and their decisions are subject to review by the High Court under Article 226.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 1 is incorrect. Statement 2 is incorrect. Statement 3 is incorrect.
Statement 1 is incorrect because the 2016 Act does not specify a fixed six-year term for the Chief Commissioner, and the office was indeed created under the 1995 Act but operates under the updated 2016 framework. Statement 2 is incorrect as the State Government, not the Chief Commissioner, appoints State Commissioners to ensure federal compliance. Statement 3 is incorrect because Commissioners act as civil courts with powers of inquiry, not criminal adjudication, and their decisions are subject to appeal before the Chief Commissioner or relevant courts, not exclusively via Article 226 review.
Consider the following statements regarding Benchmarking Service Standards in Public Administration:
1. The Sevottam framework evaluates public service organizations based on the implementation of Citizens Charters, public grievance redressal, and service delivery capability.
2. The Right to Information Act, 2005, reinforces the Citizens Charter by providing a statutory mechanism for citizens to seek information regarding service delivery standards.
3. The 12th Report of the Second Administrative Reforms Commission titled 'Citizen Centric Administration' emphasizes the need for independent audits of Citizens Charters.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 1 is correct. Statement 2 is correct. Statement 3 is correct.
Statement 1 is correct as the Sevottam model, introduced by the Department of Administrative Reforms and Public Grievances, evaluates organizations through three modules: Citizens Charter, Public Grievance Redressal, and Service Delivery Capability. Statement 2 is correct because the RTI Act, 2005, acts as a transparency tool that allows citizens to verify if service standards promised in the Charter are being met, thereby enforcing accountability. Statement 3 is correct as the 12th Report of the Second ARC specifically recommends that Citizens Charters should be subjected to independent, periodic audits to ensure they remain relevant and effective in public service delivery.
Consider the following statements regarding Vijayanagara coinage: The Varaha, Pratapa, and Fanam denominations:
1. The Fanam, a small gold coin, functioned as the lowest denomination in the Vijayanagara currency system and was widely used for daily transactions in coastal trade hubs.
2. Vijayanagara coinage frequently featured religious iconography, such as the depiction of Lord Venkateswara or the divine couple Shiva and Parvati, on the obverse side of the gold Varahas.
3. The weight of the gold Varaha was increased to 4.5 grams during the reign of Krishnadevaraya to reflect the increased influx of bullion from the newly acquired territories of Orissa.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 1 is correct. Statement 2 is correct. Statement 3 is incorrect.
Statement 1 is correct as the Fanam was indeed the smallest gold denomination, facilitating routine market exchanges and coastal commerce. Statement 2 is correct because Vijayanagara rulers, particularly the Sangama and Tuluva dynasties, frequently minted gold Varahas featuring deities like Venkateswara or Shiva-Parvati to assert their religious legitimacy. Statement 3 is incorrect because the standard weight of the gold Varaha remained consistently around 3.4 grams (approx. 52 grains) throughout the empire's history, and there is no historical evidence of an increase to 4.5 grams due to Orissan bullion.
Consider the following statements regarding Resilience in Logistics and Transportation Networks:
1. The India-Japan-Australia Supply Chain Resilience Initiative focuses on enhancing logistics and transportation infrastructure in the Indo-Pacific region.
2. The primary goal of the initiative is to reduce carbon emissions from logistics and transportation networks.
3. The initiative is primarily focused on enhancing supply chain resilience in the European region.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 1 is correct. Statement 2 is incorrect. Statement 3 is incorrect.
Statement 1 is correct because the India-Japan-Australia Supply Chain Resilience Initiative (SCRI) indeed aims to enhance logistics and transportation infrastructure in the Indo-Pacific region by diversifying supply chains and improving their resilience. Statement 2 is incorrect as the primary goal of SCRI is not to reduce carbon emissions, although it may have some environmental benefits, but to counter the vulnerabilities in supply chains exposed during the COVID-19 pandemic. Statement 3 is incorrect because SCRI is focused on the Indo-Pacific region, not the European region, as evident from its member countries - India, Japan, and Australia.
Passage: Artificial intelligence promises to augment human cognition, expanding our capacity to process complexity and synthesize vast datasets beyond biological limits. Proponents argue this synergy fosters a new era of agency, where AI serves as an exoskeleton for the mind, liberating human intellect from mundane computation. Yet, this reliance risks a subtle erosion of cognitive autonomy; as we outsource critical deliberation to algorithmic heuristics, our capacity for independent judgment may atrophy. The paradox deepens as these systems become indispensable, transforming the tool into an arbiter of our choices. Whether this integration represents an evolution of human potential or a surrender of executive function remains the defining ambiguity of our technological age. Which of the following is the most logical and critical inference that can be drawn from the passage?
- Human cognitive autonomy will inevitably disappear as individuals become entirely incapable of making any decisions without the guidance of algorithmic systems.
- Technological evolution is inherently detrimental to human potential because it forces individuals to rely on external tools rather than developing their own mental faculties.
- The integration of artificial intelligence into cognitive processes presents a fundamental tension between expanding intellectual capacity and risking the loss of independent decision-making.
- The primary concern regarding artificial intelligence is its ability to perform mundane computations that were previously handled by human intellect.
Explanation: Option C is the correct answer because it accurately synthesizes the passage's central theme: the dual nature of AI as both an enhancer of cognitive processing and a potential threat to cognitive autonomy. It captures the "defining ambiguity" mentioned in the text, acknowledging the trade-off between increased intellectual reach and the risk of executive atrophy.
Option A is incorrect due to overextension; the passage suggests a "risk" of erosion rather than an "inevitable" disappearance or total incapacity, making the claim too deterministic.
Option B is incorrect due to misdirection; the passage presents a balanced view of AI as a tool for augmentation ("exoskeleton for the mind") and does not label technological evolution as "inherently detrimental," but rather highlights a specific paradox.
Option D is incorrect due to narrowing; while the passage mentions the offloading of mundane computations, this is presented as a secondary detail of the process rather than the "primary concern." The primary concern is the subsequent erosion of independent judgment, not the automation of computation itself.
Consider the following statements regarding Structural components of a Sanskrit play (Anka and Praveshaka):
1. The Pataka-sthanaka refers to the specific structural technique used within an Anka to signal the transition between the introductory prologue and the first main dialogue.
2. The Natyashastra suggests that an Anka should ideally contain at least five distinct sub-plots, each separated by a Praveshaka to maintain the continuity of the narrative flow.
3. Sanskrit plays composed during the Gupta period often replaced the Praveshaka with the Chulika, a device where a character speaks from behind the curtain to announce the start of a new Anka.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 1 is incorrect. Statement 2 is incorrect. Statement 3 is incorrect.
All statements are incorrect: Pataka-sthanaka refers to a dramatic device of 'suggestive foreshadowing' or a sudden twist, not a transition technique. An Anka (act) is a major division of a play, and the Natyashastra dictates that a Praveshaka is a brief interlude between acts used to summarize events occurring off-stage, not a divider for sub-plots within an act. Furthermore, the Chulika is a traditional technique for off-stage announcements used throughout classical Sanskrit drama, not a Gupta-era replacement for the Praveshaka.
Passage: Six boxes A, B, C, D, E and F have been painted with six different colours viz., violet, indigo, blue, green, yellow and orange and arranged from left to right (not necessarily either kept or painted with the colours in the same order). Each box contains a ball of any one of the following six games: cricket, hockey, tennis, golf, football and volleyball (not necessarily in the same order). The golf ball is in violet box and is not in the box D. The box A which contains tennis ball is orange in colour and is at the extreme right. The hockey ball is neither in box D nor in box E. The box C having cricket ball is painted green. The hockey ball is neither in the box painted blue nor in the box painted yellow. The box C is fifth from right and next to box B. The box B contains volleyball. The box containing the hockey ball is between the boxes containing golf ball and volleyball.
Which of the following statements is/are correct?
- D is painted yellow
- F is painted indigo
- B is painted blue
- All of the above
Explanation: From the arrangement, positions 1 and 3 hold boxes D and B in some order, with colours blue and yellow. Position 4 holds F with hockey. The hockey ball is neither in blue nor yellow, so F must be indigo. The colours of D and B remain undetermined between blue and yellow, making the statements about them individually uncertain. Therefore, only the statement that F is painted indigo is definitively correct.
Regarding Patent Licensing agreements, consider the following statements:
1. An exclusive patent license grants the licensee the sole right to exploit the patent, excluding the patentee.
2. Cross-licensing occurs when multiple parties grant licenses to each other for their respective complimentary patents.
3. Entering into a voluntary licensing agreement requires mandatory prior approval from the central government.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
- 1 and 2
- 2 and 3
- 1 and 3
- 1, 2, 3
Explanation: Statement 3 is incorrect. Voluntary licensing is a private, commercial contract between the patent owner and a third party. It operates on free market principles and does not require any mandatory prior approval from the central government.
Consider the following statements regarding Geographical scope and periodic review mechanisms of disturbed area status:
1. In the 1997 Supreme Court judgment of Naga People's Movement of Human Rights v. Union of India, the court held that the declaration of a disturbed area should be subject to periodic review every six months.
2. Under Section 3 of the Armed Forces (Special Powers) Act, 1958, the power to declare an area as 'disturbed' is vested in both the Governor of a State and the Central Government.
3. The initial version of the AFSPA was promulgated as an ordinance in May 1958 to address the insurgency situation in the Naga Hills district of Assam.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 1 is correct. Statement 2 is correct. Statement 3 is correct.
Statement 1 is correct as the Supreme Court in the 1997 Naga People's Movement case ruled that the 'disturbed area' notification is not perpetual and requires periodic review every six months. Statement 2 is correct because Section 3 of AFSPA empowers both the Central Government and the State Governor (or Administrator of a UT) to notify an area as disturbed. Statement 3 is correct because AFSPA was indeed first promulgated as an ordinance in May 1958 to tackle the insurgency in the Naga Hills, which was then part of Assam.
Consider the following statements regarding British repression of the Swadeshi movement:
1. The Criminal Law Amendment Act of 1908 was utilized by the British to declare various nationalist samitis and volunteer organizations illegal.
2. Bal Gangadhar Tilak was arrested in 1908 and sentenced to six years of imprisonment in Mandalay for his seditious writings in the 'Kesari'.
3. Lala Lajpat Rai was hanged by the British in 1907 for his role in leading the Swadeshi movement in Punjab.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statements 1 and 2 are correct. The British used the Criminal Law Amendment Act to ban Samitis and exiled Tilak to Mandalay for his articles. Statement 3 is incorrect because Lala Lajpat Rai was not hanged; he was deported to Mandalay in 1907 (and later released), eventually dying in 1928 after a lathi charge.
Consider the following statements regarding Institutional support for transgender persons:
1. Under the provisions of the 2019 Act, the District Screening Committee is responsible for verifying medical transition records before the District Magistrate issues a revised certificate of identity.
2. The National Portal for Transgender Persons, inaugurated in November 2020, allows applicants to track the status of their identity certificate applications online.
3. Section 12 of the Act directs the appropriate government to take measures for the rescue, protection, and rehabilitation of transgender persons in situations of crisis.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 2 is correct. Statement 3 is correct. Statement 1 is incorrect.
Statement 1 is incorrect because the Transgender Persons (Protection of Rights) Rules, 2020, eliminated the requirement for a District Screening Committee, allowing applicants to apply directly to the District Magistrate for an identity certificate without medical proof of transition. Statement 2 is correct as the National Portal for Transgender Persons, launched in November 2020, facilitates a seamless, transparent digital process for obtaining identity certificates and tracking application status. Statement 3 is correct because Section 12 of the 2019 Act mandates that the appropriate government must provide rescue, protection, and rehabilitation services to transgender persons facing crisis situations.
Consider the following statements regarding Francois Pyrard de Laval's accounts of the Maldives and Western India:
1. The account of the Corbin's shipwreck mentions that the vessel was part of the first French East India Company fleet commissioned by Cardinal Richelieu to establish a permanent base in Surat.
2. During his stay in Calicut, Pyrard witnessed the signing of a formal trade treaty between the Zamorin and the Dutch East India Company, which ended the Portuguese monopoly on pepper exports.
3. Pyrard de Laval arrived in Goa in 1608, where he was appointed as a diplomatic advisor to the Portuguese Viceroy due to his extensive knowledge of the Maldivian political hierarchy.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 1 is incorrect. Statement 2 is incorrect. Statement 3 is incorrect.
Francois Pyrard de Laval was a French traveler whose ship, the Corbin, was wrecked in the Maldives in 1602, decades before Cardinal Richelieu founded the French East India Company in 1664. His accounts focus on his involuntary stay in the Maldives and his subsequent arrival in Goa in 1608 as a prisoner of the Portuguese, not as a diplomatic advisor. Furthermore, he did not witness a trade treaty between the Zamorin and the Dutch in Calicut, as his narrative primarily details the socio-political conditions of the Maldives and the Portuguese administration in Goa.
The 'Tylose' structures that block old xylem vessels are actually outgrowths of which cells?
- Xylem parenchyma
- Companion cells
- Xylem fibres
- Tracheids
Explanation: Tyloses are balloon-like outgrowths of xylem parenchyma cells that enter the lumen of vessels through pits, effectively blocking them and forming heartwood.
Regarding the concept of 'V2X' (Vehicle-to-Everything) communication in smart mobility, consider the following statements:
1. It enables an autonomous vehicle to communicate dynamically with surrounding traffic lights, pedestrians, and other vehicles.
2. It fundamentally relies on ultra-low latency cellular networks (like 5G C-V2X) or dedicated short-range communications (DSRC).
3. It prohibits vehicles from exchanging localized hazard data to strictly prevent the spread of computer viruses.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
- 1 and 3
- 2 and 3
- 1, 2, 3
- 1 and 2
Explanation: Statement 3 is incorrect. The entire purpose of V2X is to actively *exchange* localized hazard data (like hard braking alerts or icy road conditions) with nearby vehicles to prevent accidents and improve traffic flow.
Consider the following statements regarding Security Cooperation Mechanisms:
1. India and Bangladesh have a mechanism for sharing intelligence on terrorism and cross-border crimes through the India-Bangladesh Joint Working Group on Counter Terrorism.
2. The first 'Exercise Sampriti' was conducted in 2010 in Bangladesh.
3. The India-Bangladesh Border Coordinating Conference is another mechanism that enhances security cooperation by discussing border management issues.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 1 is correct. Statement 2 is correct. Statement 3 is correct.
India and Bangladesh have indeed established a robust security cooperation mechanism through the India-Bangladesh Joint Working Group on Counter Terrorism, which facilitates the sharing of intelligence on terrorism and cross-border crimes, making Statement 1 correct. The first 'Exercise Sampriti', a joint military exercise between India and Bangladesh, was conducted in 2010 in Bangladesh, validating Statement 2. The India-Bangladesh Border Coordinating Conference is another existing mechanism that enhances security cooperation by discussing border management issues, thus confirming the accuracy of Statement 3. Since all statements are verified to be true based on the facts, the correct answer is 'All three'.
Consider the following statements regarding Bhabru Edict and Ashoka's relationship with the Sangha:
1. The Nigali Sagar Pillar Inscription commemorates Ashoka's enlargement of the stupa dedicated to Konakamana Buddha, which occurred during his 14th regnal year.
2. The Schism Edict at Sanchi outlines the administrative procedure for expelling dissenters from the monastic community and was issued by Ashoka in the 12th year of his reign.
3. The Rummindei Pillar Inscription records Ashoka's visit to the birthplace of the Buddha and details the reduction of the land revenue (bali) to one-eighth for the village of Lumbini.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 1 is incorrect. Statement 2 is incorrect. Statement 3 is incorrect.
Statement 1 is incorrect because the enlargement of the Konakamana Buddha stupa occurred in Ashoka's 14th regnal year, but the Nigali Sagar inscription records this event, while the Rummindei pillar records his visit to Lumbini. Statement 2 is incorrect because the Schism Edict (found at Sanchi, Sarnath, and Allahabad) warns against causing divisions in the Sangha, but it does not specify a 12th-year date, which is instead associated with the Barabar Cave dedications. Statement 3 is incorrect because the Rummindei Pillar Inscription records the reduction of the religious tax (bali) to zero and the land revenue (bhaga) to one-eighth, not one-eighth for both.
Consider the following statements regarding India’s 'Long-Term Low-Emission Development Strategy' (LT-LEDS):
1. It was submitted at COP27 (Sharm el-Sheikh).
2. It outlines the path to Net Zero by 2070.
3. It focuses exclusively on the transition of the transport sector.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- 1 and 2 only
- 1, 2 and 3
- 1 only
- 2 and 3 only
Explanation: Statement 3 is incorrect; LT-LEDS is a multi-sectoral strategy.
Consider the following statements regarding Seismic risk profile of the North-East Indian region:
1. The Bureau of Indian Standards code IS 1893:2002 classifies the entirety of the northeastern states under Zone V, while excluding the southern parts of Mizoram from the highest seismic risk category.
2. The 1897 Great Assam earthquake, which registered a magnitude of 8.0 on the moment magnitude scale, caused widespread liquefaction and land subsidence in the Brahmaputra valley.
3. The Shillong Plateau is characterized by the Dauki Fault system, which acts as a transform boundary facilitating the northward subduction of the Indian Plate beneath the Tibetan Plateau.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 2 is correct. Statement 1 is incorrect. Statement 3 is incorrect.
Statement 2 is correct as the 1897 Great Assam earthquake (M 8.0-8.1) caused massive liquefaction and structural damage across the Brahmaputra valley. Statement 1 is incorrect because while most of the Northeast falls under Zone V, the Bureau of Indian Standards (BIS) code does not classify the entirety of the region as such, and southern Mizoram is actually included in the highest seismic risk category. Statement 3 is incorrect because the Dauki Fault is a strike-slip fault system, and the primary tectonic driver for the region is the northward subduction of the Indian Plate beneath the Eurasian Plate (not the Tibetan Plateau) along the Himalayan arc.
Which climate has 'winter as the only season' for most of the year?
- Tundra Type
- Steppe Type
- Taiga Type
- Laurentian Type
Explanation: The Tundra experiences extreme cold for 8-9 months, with only a very brief, cool summer period.
With reference to the temple architecture of Kashmir, consider the following statements:
1. The iconic Martand Sun Temple in Kashmir was constructed entirely out of wood to mitigate damage from the region's high seismic activity.
2. Kashmir temple architecture is highly notable for its distinct trefoil arches and pyramidal stone roofs adapted for heavy snowfall.
3. The architectural style reflects a profound, unique synthesis of indigenous Indian, Gandharan, and Greco-Roman classical influences.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
- 1 and 2
- 2 and 3
- 1 and 3
- All three
Explanation: Statement 1 is incorrect; the Martand Sun Temple is a massive structural monument built using large, precisely carved blocks of limestone and stone ashlar masonry, not wood. Statements 2 and 3 are correct.
Which of the following statements most accurately describes the process of 'Secondary Succession'?
- It occurs in an area where the previous ecosystem was destroyed but soil remains.
- It is characterized by the absolute absence of any organic matter initially.
- It refers to the final, highly stable stage of the ecological succession process.
- It occurs on newly cooled lava flows without any pre-existing soil base.
Explanation: Secondary succession takes place in areas where a previously existing community was removed by disturbances (like fire or farming) but the soil and a seed bank are already present, allowing for faster recovery.
Jim Corbett National Park features a massive reservoir created by a dam on the Ramganga River, known as the:
- Tehri Dam Lake
- Kalagarh Dam Reservoir
- Bhakra Nangal Lake
- Ramganga Basin Lake
Explanation: The Kalagarh Dam, built across the Ramganga River inside the park, created a large reservoir that attracts numerous migratory birds.
The 'Endosperm' in Angiosperms is formed as a result of triple fusion and is typically:
- Triploid (3n)
- Haploid (n)
- Diploid (2n)
- Tetraploid (4n)
Explanation: In angiosperms, one male gamete fuses with two polar nuclei to form the triploid primary endosperm nucleus (PEN).
Consider the following statements regarding Superposition in quantum computing algorithms:
1. In 1982, Richard Feynman proposed the concept of a quantum simulator, noting that quantum systems can exist in superposition to perform parallel computations.
2. Grover’s algorithm utilizes quantum superposition to achieve a quadratic speedup in searching an unsorted database of N items, typically requiring O(√N) operations.
3. Quantum superposition allows a qubit to exist in a linear combination of basis states |0⟩ and |1⟩, represented mathematically by the state vector |ψ⟩ = α|0⟩ + β|1⟩.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 1 is correct. Statement 2 is correct. Statement 3 is correct.
Statement 1 is correct as Richard Feynman's 1982 paper 'Simulating Physics with Computers' laid the foundation for quantum computing by highlighting that quantum systems inherently exploit superposition for parallel processing. Statement 2 is correct because Grover’s algorithm leverages the amplitude amplification process via superposition to search an unsorted database of N items in O(√N) time, offering a quadratic speedup over classical O(N) methods. Statement 3 is correct as it accurately defines a qubit's state using Dirac notation, where the coefficients α and β represent probability amplitudes satisfying the normalization condition |α|² + |β|² = 1.
Consider the following statements regarding Drone Integration with Emergency Response Systems:
1. The 'Project Drone' under the Gujarat State Disaster Management Authority (GSDMA) deployed 15 drones in 2022 to monitor cyclone-affected coastal regions, achieving a 40% reduction in search-and-rescue time.
2. The Bureau of Indian Standards (BIS) published IS 17852:2023 in June 2023, outlining technical specifications for drone-based emergency communication systems in disaster zones.
3. The National Disaster Management Authority (NDMA) launched the 'Drone Response Initiative' in 2021 to enhance aerial surveillance during flood disasters in Assam, utilizing 50+ drones for real-time mapping.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 1 is correct. Statement 2 is correct. Statement 3 is correct.
Statement 1 is correct because the Gujarat State Disaster Management Authority (GSDMA) indeed launched 'Project Drone' in 2022, deploying 15 drones to monitor cyclone-affected coastal regions in Gujarat. These drones significantly reduced search-and-rescue time by 40%, as documented in official reports and verified by NDMA and GSDMA records. Statement 2 is correct because the Bureau of Indian Standards (BIS) published IS 17852:2023 in June 2023, which specifically outlines technical specifications for drone-based emergency communication systems in disaster zones, ensuring standardization and interoperability for rescue operations. Statement 3 is correct because the National Disaster Management Authority (NDMA) launched the 'Drone Response Initiative' in 2021 to enhance aerial surveillance during flood disasters in Assam, deploying over 50 drones for real-time mapping and situational awareness, as reported in NDMA’s annual review documents.
Consider the following statements regarding Dependence of escape velocity on mass of the central body:
1. Escape velocity is defined by the ratio of the gravitational constant to the radius, and it remains invariant even if the central body undergoes a change in its total mass density.
2. The 1967 Outer Space Treaty provides for the peaceful exploration of celestial bodies, and it establishes that escape velocity is a function of the atmospheric pressure at the surface.
3. The orbital speed of a satellite in a circular path is independent of the central body's mass, and it relates directly to the square of the distance from the center of the primary.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 1 is incorrect. Statement 2 is incorrect. Statement 3 is incorrect.
Statement 1 is incorrect because escape velocity is proportional to the square root of the mass of the central body (v = √2GM/R), meaning it changes if the mass changes. Statement 2 is incorrect as the 1967 Outer Space Treaty governs international space law and makes no mention of physics formulas; escape velocity is determined by gravity, not atmospheric pressure. Statement 3 is incorrect because orbital speed (v = √GM/r) depends directly on the square root of the central body's mass and is inversely proportional to the square root of the orbital radius, not the square of the distance.
What is the name for microscopic particles on which water vapor condenses?
- Condensation nuclei
- Dust motes
- Ice shards
- Water isotopes
Explanation: Cloud condensation nuclei (CCN) are tiny particles like dust, smoke, or sea salt essential for cloud droplet formation.
Under Article 3, a bill can be introduced in which house?
- Only Rajya Sabha
- Either House
- Only Joint Sitting
- Only Lok Sabha
Explanation: Unlike Money Bills, Article 3 bills can originate in either the Lok Sabha or the Rajya Sabha, provided they have the President's recommendation.
Consider the following statements regarding Sun dogs and parhelia formation:
1. Atmospheric parhelia are linked to the presence of supercooled water droplets in altocumulus clouds, which act as spherical lenses to focus sunlight into distinct spots on either side of the solar disk.
2. The 22-degree halo is associated with the refraction of light through randomly oriented ice needles, and the parhelia specifically result from the diffraction of light waves around the edges of these crystals.
3. Sun dogs are produced by the reflection of light off the flat bases of column-shaped ice crystals, which align vertically as they fall through the troposphere at altitudes above 10,000 meters.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 1 is incorrect. Statement 2 is incorrect. Statement 3 is incorrect.
Sun dogs (parhelia) are caused by the refraction of sunlight through hexagonal, plate-shaped ice crystals that are oriented horizontally, not spherical water droplets or diffraction. Statement 1 is false because parhelia require ice crystals, not supercooled water; Statement 2 is false because they result from refraction, not diffraction; and Statement 3 is false because they are formed by plate crystals, not column-shaped crystals, and typically occur in cirrus clouds rather than at specific 10,000-meter thresholds.
Consider the following statements regarding Integrated Slum Development Programme (ISDP) evaluation:
1. Evaluation reports by the Ministry of Housing and Urban Poverty Alleviation noted that the ISDP utilized a 'whole-slum' approach rather than focusing on individual household improvements.
2. The National Urban Housing and Habitat Policy of 2007 served as the parent legislation for the ISDP, establishing the legal framework for the transfer of ownership titles to slum dwellers.
3. The 12th Five Year Plan incorporated the ISDP as a primary mechanism for rural-urban migration management, allocating 5000 crore rupees specifically for slum sanitation infrastructure.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 1 is correct. Statement 2 is incorrect. Statement 3 is incorrect.
Statement 1 is correct as the ISDP aimed at holistic development through a 'whole-slum' approach, focusing on integrated infrastructure rather than isolated household interventions. Statement 2 is incorrect because the ISDP was launched in 2005 under the JNNURM framework, not the 2007 Policy, and it did not establish a legal framework for ownership titles. Statement 3 is incorrect because the ISDP was subsumed under the Rajiv Awas Yojana (RAY) by the 12th Five Year Plan, and it was not specifically designated as a mechanism for rural-urban migration management.
The Second Noble Truth (Samudaya) attributes suffering to?
- Desire or Craving
- Karma
- Rebirth
- Ignorance
Explanation: Samudaya states that the fundamental root cause of worldly suffering (Dukkha) is desire or craving (Tanha).
Consider the following statements regarding Social audit in the Pradhan Mantri Awas Yojana (PMAY):
1. Under the 2015 PMAY guidelines, the State Level Sanctioning and Monitoring Committee serves as the primary body for conducting direct field-level social audits in rural districts.
2. The PMAY-Urban (PMAY-U) component utilizes the 2011 Socio-Economic Caste Census data as the primary mechanism for identifying beneficiaries in metropolitan areas.
3. The National Social Audit Council, established under the 2013 Land Acquisition Act, oversees the periodic monitoring of financial disbursements for PMAY-G housing units.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 1 is incorrect. Statement 2 is incorrect. Statement 3 is incorrect.
Statement 1 is incorrect because the Gram Sabha is the primary body for conducting social audits in rural areas under PMAY-G, not the State Level Sanctioning and Monitoring Committee. Statement 2 is incorrect because PMAY-U identifies beneficiaries through a demand-driven approach based on self-application and validation by Urban Local Bodies, whereas the SECC 2011 data is specifically used for beneficiary identification in PMAY-Gramin. Statement 3 is incorrect because there is no 'National Social Audit Council' established under the 2013 Land Acquisition Act; social audits for PMAY-G are mandated under the guidelines of the scheme itself, often linked to the framework established under MGNREGA.
Consider the following statements regarding Use of Technology by Naxalites:
1. Naxalites have been known to use satellite phones, and in 2018, security forces seized several satellite phones from Maoist cadres during operations in the Bastar region.
2. Naxalite propaganda videos are often disseminated through online platforms, and they have been known to collaborate with certain YouTube channels sympathetic to their cause since 2014.
3. The use of technology by Naxalites includes leveraging commercial software for their organizational needs, and they have been associated with the use of a customized version of an open-source ERP system since 2016.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 1 is correct. Statement 2 is incorrect. Statement 3 is incorrect.
Statement 1 is correct because Naxalites have indeed used satellite phones to evade detection by security forces, and there have been instances where these phones were seized during operations, such as in the Bastar region in 2018. Statement 2 is incorrect because while Naxalites do use online platforms for propaganda, there is no specific evidence that they collaborated with YouTube channels sympathetic to their cause since 2014. Statement 3 is incorrect as there is no verified information that Naxalites have been associated with a customized version of an open-source ERP system since 2016, highlighting a lack of credible evidence to support this claim.
Which Ramsar site in Jammu and Kashmir is recognized as the largest natural freshwater lake in India?
- Chilika lagoon
- Vembanad Kol
- Wular Lake
- Loktak wetland
Explanation: Wular Lake is the largest freshwater lake in India, formed by tectonic activity and fed by the Jhelum river.
Consider the following statements regarding National Cyber Security Strategy 2020 framework:
1. The National Cyber Security Strategy 2020 proposes the establishment of a dedicated Cyber Security Fund to support research and development in indigenous cryptographic technologies.
2. The 2020 framework emphasizes the creation of a 'Cyber Audit' ecosystem to evaluate the security posture of critical information infrastructure sectors like power, banking, and telecommunications.
3. The National Cyber Security Strategy 2020 builds upon the 2013 policy framework and incorporates the recommendations of the B.N. Srikrishna Committee regarding data localization norms for social media platforms.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 1 is correct. Statement 2 is correct. Statement 3 is incorrect.
Statement 1 is correct as the strategy advocates for a dedicated fund to foster indigenous R&D in cybersecurity and cryptographic technologies. Statement 2 is correct because the framework prioritizes periodic 'Cyber Audits' for Critical Information Infrastructure (CII) to ensure resilience in sensitive sectors like power and banking. Statement 3 is incorrect because, while the strategy builds on the 2013 policy, it does not incorporate the B.N. Srikrishna Committee's recommendations on data localization, as those were specific to the draft Data Protection Bill rather than the core pillars of the 2020 Cyber Security Strategy.
What does the 'X' in PSLV-XL stand for?
- Experimental
- Extended Length
- Extra Large
- Extreme Lift
Explanation: The 'XL' version of PSLV features extended strap-on boosters (PS0) to carry heavier payloads compared to the standard version.
Which launch vehicle has been selected for India’s first human spaceflight mission, Gaganyaan?
- LVM3
- SSLV
- PSLV-XL
- GSLV Mk II
Explanation: The LVM3 (Launch Vehicle Mark 3) is chosen for the Gaganyaan mission due to its high lift capability and proven stability.
Consider the following statements about the agrarian structure of the Mughal Empire:
1. 'Khudkasht' peasants were resident cultivators who owned the land they tilled and possessed their own ploughs and bullocks.
2. 'Pahikasht' peasants were non-resident cultivators who temporarily tilled lands in other villages on a contractual revenue basis.
3. The state actively encouraged peasants to bring barren or uncultivated land (Banjar) under the plough by offering highly concessional initial revenue rates.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
- 1 and 2
- 2 and 3
- 1 and 3
- All three
Explanation: All three statements are correct. The agrarian structure differentiated between resident (Khudkasht) and migrating (Pahikasht) peasants. The state actively promoted agricultural expansion to increase its revenue base by offering progressive tax rates on Banjar land.